Eastenders - Current Episode Discussion - VIII

[maidmarian]

I'm pretty sure Shirley only owns a small percentage (I was thinking perhaps 10%) as she only paid £10,000 for her share (she blackmailed them with the money she got from Stan for the damp if I remember correctly).

Is it possible there is no contract and the agreement is just verbal? I suppose that's not credible because Mick and Linda could just tell Shirley to go to hell if that were the case.

We are not too sure whats happened in this case-
but it is possible to have a verbal.partnership
agreement and it is legally binding. It also
may be reasonably easy to dissolve a verbal
partnership where all parties agree.

But would probably need recourse to legal
measures if they didnt!! and Shirley may not
agree to the terms offered!
Were there any witnesses apart from the
viewers?

Some things must be in writing sale of property
tenancy agreements & consumer credit agreements.
are examples.I think there has been a general
assumption there had been a written contract.

P.s. You.have obviously paid more attention
to the the details about Shirleys involvement
than me!!! -but I do miss a couple of episodes
now and again when at relatives.